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Latest comment: 3 years ago by بطرس مرقس

What name should we use for England? I know Labib used ⲁⲅⲅⲗⲓⲁ, but he used the Greek word for a thing that didn't have it's name in Coptic, just like most of medieval Scalas. If we follow the same logic as with ⲗⲟⲛⲧⲁ, then it should be ⲉⲛⲕⲉⲗⲑⲉⲣⲁ/ⲉⲛⲅⲉⲗⲑⲉⲣⲁ. Given the etymology of both England and Angleterre we could also create a Coptic neologism, something like ⲧⲉⲛⲉⲛⲕⲉⲗ. What do you think? ⲥⲉⲣⲕⲓ (talk) 22:22, 14 July 2019 (UTC)Reply

The old me lol. --ⲫⲁϯⲟⲩⲉⲣϣⲓ (talk) 01:22, 10 October 2020 (UTC)Reply
I also think that ⲁⲅⲅⲗⲓⲁ is the most used. (Although I generally think the mediaeval scalas aren't worth a lot.) Well, what if we just use ⲉⲛⲕⲉⲗⲑⲉⲣⲁ and ⲁⲅⲅⲗⲓⲁ synonymously? You can use whatever you prefer. But I'm not sure if we should replace all incidents of the one version with the other. Just leaving it is fine. ⲁϩⲙⲉⲧ (talk) 20:20, 16 July 2019 (UTC)Reply
I agree, we can use both synonymously. بطرس مرقس (talk) 11:06, 13 October 2020 (UTC)Reply